Physics - Practice Final Exam
Multiple Choice
Identify
the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
The following values may be used throughout the test whenever needed:
G = 6.673 × 10-11 m3/kg×s2 k = 8.99 × 109 N×m2/C2
c = 3.00 × 108
m/s e = 1.602 ×
10-19 C
me = 9.11 × 10-31 kg mp = 1.67 ×
10-27 kg
1.
The
symbols for units of length in order from smallest to largest are
A. m, cm, mm, and km. C.
km, mm, cm, and m.
B. mm, m, cm, and km. D.
mm, cm, m, and km.
2.
If
some measurements agree closely with each other but differ widely from the
actual value, these measurements are
A. neither precise nor accurate.
B. accurate but not precise.
C. acceptable as a new standard of
accuracy.
D. precise but not accurate.
3.
These
values were obtained as the mass of a bar of metal: 8.83 g; 8.84 g; 8.82 g. The
known mass is 10.68 g. The values are
A. accurate. C.
both accurate and precise.
B. precise. D.
neither accurate nor precise.
4.
Five
darts strike near the center of a target. The dart thrower is
A. accurate. C.
both accurate and precise.
B. precise. D.
neither accurate nor precise.
5.
Calculate
the following, and express the answer in scientific notation with the correct
number of significant figures: 21.4 + 15 + 17.17 + 4.003
A. 57.573 C.
57.6
B. 57.57 D.
58
6.
Calculate
the following, and express the answer in scientific notation with the correct
number of significant figures: 10.5 ´ 8.8 ´ 3.14
A.2.9 ´ 102 C. 290.1
B. 290.136 D.
290
7.
Assuming
x is distance, which of the following
expressions best defines average speed?
A. 
C. vavg = Dx·Dt
B. 
D. 
8.
A
hiker travels south along a straight path for 1.5 h with an average velocity of
0.75 km/h, then travels south for 2.5 h with an
average velocity of 0.90 km/h. What is the hiker’s displacement for the total
trip?
A. 0.86 km to the south C.
3.4 km to the south
B. 3.3 km to the south D.
4.8 km to the south
9.
Acceleration
is
A. displacement. C.
velocity per time.
B. the rate of change of displacement. D.
the rate of change of velocity.
10.
When an
object’s velocity and acceleration vectors point in opposite directions, what
happens?
A. The object slows down. C.
Nothing happens to the object.
B. The object speeds up. D.
The object remains at rest.
Figure 1 – questions 11 through 13
11.
What
does the graph above (Fig. 1) illustrate about acceleration?
A. The acceleration is constant.
B. The acceleration is zero.
C. The acceleration decreases.
D. The acceleration increases.
12.
For
the graph above (Fig. 1) determine the distance traveled during the first 8.0
seconds.
A. 8.0 m B.
16 m
C. 24 m D.
40 m
13.
For
the graph above (Fig. 1) determine the instantaneous acceleration at t = 4.0 s.
A. 0.5 m/s2 B.
0.75 m/s2
C. 2.0 m/s2 D.
3.0 m/s2
Figure 2 –
Questions 14 through 16
14.
At
what point(s) on the above graph (Fig. 2) does the acceleration vector point in
the same direction as the velocity vector?
A. At all points in time before 4.0 s and at all points in time after 7.0 s.
B. At all points in time between 4.0 s and 7.0 s.
C. At all points in time after 7.0 s.
D. Only at the exact points in time labeled by points A and B on the graph.
15.
For
the graph shown above (Fig. 2), compare the instantaneous acceleration at point
A to the instantaneous acceleration at point B:
A. The rate of acceleration at point A is greater than the rate of acceleration
at point B.
B. The rate of acceleration at point A is less than the rate of acceleration at
point B.
C. The acceleration at point A is equal to the acceleration at point B.
D. The acceleration at point A is the opposite of the acceleration at point B.
16.
Determine
the magnitude of the average acceleration between points A and B on the graph
(Fig. 2).
A. 0.67 m/s2 B.
1.3 m/s2
C. 1.5 m/s2 D.
2.0 m/s2
17.
A toy
car is given an initial velocity of 5.0 m/s and experiences a constant
acceleration of 2.0 m/s2. What is the final velocity after 6.0 s?
A. 10.0 m/s C.
16 m/s
B. 12 m/s D.
17 m/s
18.
A
race car accelerates from 0 m/s to 30.0 m/s with a displacement of 45.0 m. What
is the vehicle's acceleration?
A. 20.0 m/s2 C.
10.0 m/s2
B. 5.00 m/s2 D.
15.0 m/s2
19.
A
curious kitten pushes a ball of yarn at rest with its nose, displacing the ball
of yarn 17.5 cm in 2.00 s. What is the acceleration of the ball of yarn?
A. 11.0 cm/s2 C.
17.5 cm/s2
B. 8.75 cm/s2 D.
4.38 cm/s2
20.
A
sports car accelerates at a constant rate from rest to a speed of 27.8 m/s in
8.00 s. What is the displacement of the sports car in this time interval?
A. 55.0 m C.
111 m
B. 77.0 m D.
222 m
21.
Acceleration
due to gravity is also called
A. negative velocity. C.
free-fall acceleration.
B. displacement. D.
instantaneous velocity.
22.
A
rock is thrown straight upward with an initial velocity of 24.5 m/s where the
downward acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. What is the
rock's displacement after 1.00 s?
A. 9.81 m C. 24.5 m
B. 19.6 m D. 29.4 m
23.
A
tourist accidentally drops a camera from a 40.0 m high bridge. If g =
9.81 m/s2 and air resistance is disregarded, what is the speed of
the camera as it hits the water?
A. 28.0 m/s C. 19.8 m/s
B. 31.0 m/s D. 79.9 m/s
24.
Which
would hit the ground first if dropped from the same height in a vacuum, a
feather or a metal bolt?
A. the feather
B. the metal bolt
C. They would hit the ground at the same time.
D. They would be suspended in a vacuum.
25.
Which
of the following is a physical quantity that has a magnitude but no direction?
A. vector C. resultant
B. scalar D. frame of reference
26.
Identify
the following quantities as scalar or vector: the speed of a snail, the time it
takes to run a mile, the free-fall acceleration.
A. vector, scalar, scalar C.
vector, scalar, vector
B. scalar, scalar, vector D.
scalar, vector, vector
27.
A
duck waddles 2.5 m east and 6.0 m north. What are the magnitude and direction
of the duck’s displacement with respect to its original position?
A. 3.5 m at 67° north of east C. 6.5 m
at 67° north of east
B. 8.5 m at 23° north of east D. 6.5 m
at 23° north of east
28.
An
athlete runs a displacement of 110 m, 210.0° across a level field. What
is the y-component of this
displacement (i.e. the northward component)?
A. 55 m C.
-55 m
B. 95 m D.
-95 m
29.
Find
the resultant of these two vectors: 2.00 ´ 102 units due east and 4.00 ´ 102 units, 150.0°.
A. 346 units 90.0° C. 529 units 139.1°
B. 581 units 159.9° D. 248 units 126.2°
30.
A
hiker walks 4.5 km at an angle of 45° north of west. Then the hiker walks 4.5 km south. What is the
magnitude and direction of the hiker’s total displacement?
A. 3.5 km, 22° south of west C.
6.4 km, 45° north of west
B. 3.5 km, 22° north of west D.
6.4 km, 22° south of west
31.
A
stone is thrown at an angle of 30.0° above the horizontal from the top edge of a cliff with an initial
speed of 12 m/s. A stopwatch measures the stone’s trajectory time from the top
of the cliff to the bottom at 5.6 s. What is the height of the cliff?
(Disregard air resistance. g = 9.81 m/s2.)
A. 96 m C. 120 m
B. 150 m D. 190 m
32.
A
track star in the long jump goes into the jump at 12 m/s and launches herself at 20.0° above the horizontal. How long is she in
the air before returning to Earth? (g = 9.81 m/s2)
A. 0.42 s C. 1.7 s
B. 0.84 s D. 1.1 s
33.
A
firefighter 50.0 m away from a burning building directs a stream of water from
a fire hose at an angle of 30.0° above
the horizontal. If the velocity of the stream is 40.0 m/s, at what height will
the stream of water strike the building?
A. 8.45 m C. 18.7 m
B. 21.8 m D. 55.9 m
34.
A piece
of chalk is dropped by a teacher walking at a speed of 1.5
m/s. From the teacher’s perspective, the chalk appears to fall
A. straight down. C. straight
down and forward.
B. straight down and backward. D. straight backward.
35. A jet has an airspeed and heading of 500.0
km/h due east and encounters a wind blowing at 120.0 km/h, 330.0°. What is the velocity of the aircraft
relative to the ground?
A. 607 km/h, 354.3° C. 550.0 km/h, 354.3°
B. 620.0 km/h, 5.7° D. 588 km/h, 5.7°
36.
A
boat moves at 10.0 m/s relative to the water. If the boat is in a river where
the current is 2.00 m/s, how long does it take the boat to make a complete
round trip of 1000.0 m upstream followed by 1000.0 m downstream?
A. 167 s C. 208 s
B. 200 s D. 250 s
37.
A
free-body diagram of a ball falling in the presence of air resistance would
show
A. a downward arrow to represent the force of air resistance.
B. only a downward arrow to represent the force of gravity.
C. a downward arrow to represent the force of gravity and an upward arrow to
represent the force of air resistance.
D. an upward arrow to represent the force of gravity and a downward arrow to
represent the force of air resistance.
38.
Which
of the following is the tendency of an object to maintain its state of motion?
A. acceleration C. force
B. inertia D. velocity
39.
A
person exerts a horizontal force on a box to slide it at a constant velocity
across a level surface. The amount of force that the person must exert in these
circumstances is
A. greater than the normal force times the coefficient of kinetic friction.
B. equal to the normal force times the coefficient of kinetic friction.
C. less than the normal force times the coefficient of kinetic friction.
D. greater than the normal force times the coefficient of static friction.
40.
A
sled is pulled at a constant velocity across a horizontal snow surface. If a
force of 8.0 ´ 101
N is being applied to the sled rope at an angle of 53° to the ground, what is the force of
friction between the sled and the snow?
A. 83 N C. 48 N
B. 64 N D. 42 N
41.
Two
perpendicular forces, one of 45.0 N directed upward and the second of 60.0 N
directed to the right, act simultaneously on an object with a mass of 35.0 kg.
What is the magnitude of the resultant acceleration of the object? (g =
9.81 m/s2)
A. 8.69 m/s2
B. 3.00 m/s2
C. 5.25 m/s2
D. 1.41 m/s2
42.
An
elevator weighing 2.00 ´ 105
N is supported by a steel cable. What is the tension in the cable when the
elevator is accelerated upward at a rate of 3.00 m/s2? (g =
9.81 m/s2)
A. 1.39 ´ 105 N C.
2.56 ´ 106 N
B. 1.36 ´ 106 N D.
2.61 ´ 105 N
43.
A
hammer drives a nail into a piece of wood.
Which of the following would be an action-reaction pair as described by
A. The nail exerts a force on the hammer; the hammer exerts a force on the
wood.
B. The hammer exerts a force on the nail; the wood exerts a force on the nail.
C. The hammer exerts a force on the nail; the nail exerts a force on the
hammer.
D. The hammer exerts a force on the nail; the hammer exerts a force on the
wood.
44.
As a
basketball player starts to jump for a rebound, the player begins to move
upward faster and faster until his shoes leave the floor. During the time that
the player’s upward speed is increasing, the force of the floor on the shoes is
A. greater than the player’s weight.
B. equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the player's weight.
C. less than the player’s weight.
D. zero.
45.
The
magnitude of the force of gravity acting on an object is equivalent to its
A. frictional force. C. inertia.
B. weight. D. mass.
46.
A
change in the force of gravity acting on an object will affect the object’s
A. mass. C. weight.
B. frictional force. D. inertia.
47.
A
sled weighing 1.0 ´ 102
N is held in place on a frictionless 20.0° slope by a rope attached to a stake at the top. The rope is
parallel to the slope. What is the normal force of the slope acting on the
sled?
A. 94 N C. 37 N
B. 47 N D. 34 N
48.
A
couch with a mass of 1 ´ 102
kg is placed on an adjustable ramp connected to a truck. As one end of the ramp
is raised, the couch begins to move downward. If the couch slides down the ramp
with an acceleration of 0.70 m/s2 when the ramp angle is 25°, what is the coefficient of kinetic
friction between the ramp and couch?
(g = 9.81 m/s2)
A. 0.47 C. 0.39
B. 0.55 D. 0.35
49.
There
are six books in a stack, and each book weighs 5 N. The coefficient of friction
between the books is 0.2. With what horizontal force must one push to start
sliding the top five books off the bottom one?
A. 1 N C. 6 N
B. 5 N D. 49 N
50.
An
ice skater moving at 10.0 m/s coasts to a halt in 1.0 ´ 102 m on a smooth ice surface.
What is the coefficient of friction between the ice and the skates?
A. 0.025 C. 0.102
B. 0.051 D. 0.205
51.
An
object moves with a constant speed of 20 m/s on a circular track of
radius 100 m. What is the
acceleration of the object?
A. 0 C.
2.0 m/s2
B. 0.20 m/s2 D.
4.0 m/s2
52.
A
motorcycle has a mass of 250 kg. It goes
around a 13.7 m radius turn at 96.5 km/h.
What is the centripetal force on the motorcycle?
A. 489 N C.
1.31´ 104 N
B. 2.95 ´ 103 N D.
1.70 ´ 105 N
53.
A
0.50 kg mass is attached to the end of a 1.0 m string. The system is whirled in a horizontal
circular path. If the maximum tension
that the string can withstand is 350 N, what is the maximum speed of the mass
if the string is not to break?
A. 700 m/s C.
19 m/s
B. 26 m/s D.
13 m/s
54.
An
object moves in a circular path at a constant speed. Consider the direction of the object’s
velocity and acceleration vectors.
A. Both vectors point in the same direction.
B. The vectors point in opposite directions.
C. The vectors are perpendicular.
D. The question is meaningless, since the acceleration is zero.
55.
A car
goes around a flat curve of radius 50 m at a speed of 14 m/s. What must be the minimum coefficient of
friction between the tires and the road for the car to make the turn?
A. 0.20 C.
0.60
B. 0.40 D.
0.80
56.
What
is the gravitational force between two trucks, each with a mass of 2.0 ´ 104 kg, that
are 2.0 m apart? (G = 6.673 ´ 10–11 N·m2/kg2)
A. 3.3 ´ 10–7 N C. 6.7 ´ 10–3 N
B. 1.3 ´ 10–2 N D. 6.7 ´ 10–7 N
57.
The
gravitational force between two masses is 36 N. What is the gravitational force
if the distance between them is tripled? (G = 6.673 ´ 10–11 N·m2/kg2)
A. 4.0 N C.
18 N
B. 9.0 N D.
27 N
58.
By
how many newtons does the weight of a 100 kg person
change when he goes from sea level to an altitude of 5000 m? (Mass of earth = 5.97 ´ 1024
kg; radius of earth = 6.38 ´ 106 m)
A. 0.39 N C. 2.6 N
B. 9.7 N D.
3.8 N
59.
Umbriel,
a moon of Uranus, has an orbital radius of 266 Mm and a period of 4.14 days. Use this information to determine the mass of
Uranus.
A. 3.27 ´ 1017 kg C.
8.70 ´ 1025 kg
B. 2.20 ´ 1024 kg D.
3.13 ´ 1029 kg
60.
A
certain planet has twice the earth’s mass and twice its radius. If a jar of peanut butter weighs 12 N on the
surface of the earth, how much would it weigh on the surface of this planet?
A. 6.0 N C.
24 N
B. 12 N D.
36 N
61.
A
satellite orbits the earth at an altitude of 230 km in a circular path. Determine the speed of the satellite in its
orbit. (Mass of earth = 5.97 ´ 1024
kg; radius of earth = 6.38 ´ 106 m)
A. 480 m/s C.
7900 m/s
B. 7800 m/s D.
8000 m/s
62.
A
force does positive work on an object if
A. the force is perpendicular to the object’s velocity.
B. the force is in the same direction as the object’s velocity.
C. the force is in the opposite direction of the object’s velocity.
D. there is an equal and opposite force acting on the object and the object is
at rest.
63.
A
1.00 ´ 103 kg sports car accelerates
from rest to 25.0 m/s in 7.50 s. What is the average power output of the
automobile engine? (Ignore friction)
A. 1.67 kW C. 41.7 kW
B. 83.3 kW D. 245 kW
64.
The
more powerful the motor is,
A. the longer the time interval for doing the work is.
B. the shorter the time interval for doing the work is.
C. the greater the ability to do the work is.
D. the shorter the workload is.
65.
A
worker pushes a wheelbarrow with a horizontal force of 50.0 N over a level
distance of 5.0 m. If a frictional force of 43 N acts on the wheelbarrow in a
direction opposite to that of the worker, what net work is done on the
wheelbarrow?
A. 250 J C. 35 J
B. 0.0 J D. 465 J
66.
A
hill is 100 m long and makes an angle of 12° with the horizontal. As a 50 kg jogger runs up the hill, how much
work does gravity do on the jogger?
A. -49 000 J C. –10 000 J
B. 49 000 J D.
10 000 J
67.
A
child moving at constant velocity carries a 2 N ice-cream cone 1 m across a level
surface. What is the net work done on the ice-cream cone?
A. 0 J C. 2 J
B. 0.5 J D. 20 J
68.
A
flight attendant pulls a 50.0 N flight bag a distance of 250.0 m along a level
airport floor at a constant speed. A 30.0 N force is exerted on the bag at an
angle of 50.0° above the
horizontal. How much work is done on the flight bag?
A. 7500 J C.
4820 J
B. 8030 J D. 5750 J
69.
A
3.00 kg toy falls from a height of 10.0 m. Just before hitting the ground, what
will be its kinetic energy? (Disregard air resistance. g = 9.81 m/s2.)
A. 14 J C. 29.4 J
B. 600 J D. 294 J
70.
What
is the kinetic energy of a 0.135 kg baseball thrown at 40.0 m/s?
A. 54.0 J C. 108 J
B. 5.4 J D. 216 J
71.
Which
of the following energy forms is associated with an object in motion?
A. potential energy C. nonmechanical energy
B. elastic potential energy D. kinetic energy
72.
Which
of the following energy forms is associated with an object due to its position?
A. potential C.
total
B. positional D. kinetic
73.
Which
of the following energy forms is stored in any compressed or stretched object?
A. nonmechanical energy C. gravitational
potential energy
B. elastic potential energy D. kinetic energy
74.
A. 7.00 m/s C. 19.8 m/s
B. 14.0 m/s D. 28.0 m/s
75.
A
professional skier starts from rest and reaches a speed of 56 m/s on a ski
slope 30.0° above the horizontal. Disregarding
friction, find the minimum distance along the slope the skier would have to travel
in order to reach this speed.
A. 5.7 m C. 320 m
B. 160 m D. 640 m
76.
A
40.0 N crate starting at rest slides down a rough 6.0 m long ramp inclined at
30.0° with the horizontal. The force of
friction between the crate and ramp is 6.0 N. Using
the work–kinetic energy theorem, find the velocity of the crate at the bottom
of the incline.
A. 7.5 m/s C. 10.0 m/s
B. 2.6 m/s D. 6.4 m/s
77.
A
child riding a bicycle has a total mass of 40.0 kg. The child approaches the
top of a hill that is 10.0 m high and 100.0 m long at 5.0 m/s. If the force of
friction between the bicycle and the hill is 20.0 N, what is the child’s
velocity at the bottom of the hill? (Disregard air resistance. g = 9.81
m/s2.)
A. 18 m/s
B. 15 m/s
C. 11 m/s
D. The child stops before reaching the bottom.
78.
What
is the average power supplied by a 60.0 kg secretary running up a flight of
stairs rising vertically 4.0 m in 4.2 s?
A. 570 W C.
57 W
B. 560 W D. 6.5 W
79.
A jet
engine develops 1.0 ´ 105
N of thrust to move an airplane forward at a speed of 9.0 ´ 102 km/h. What is the power
output of the engine?
A. 90 MW C.
25 MW
B. 324 MW D.
1500 MW
80.
Water
flows over a section of
A. 589 MW C. 147 MW
B. 294 MW D. 60.0 MW
81.
Which
of the following has the greatest momentum?
A. truck with a mass of 2250 kg moving at a velocity of 25 m/s
B. car with a mass of 1210 kg moving at a velocity of 51 m/s
C. truck with a mass of 6120 kg moving at a velocity of 10 m/s
D. car with a mass of 1540 kg moving at a velocity of 38 m/s
82.
A 6.0
´ 10–2 kg tennis ball moves at a
velocity of 12 m/s. The ball is struck by a racket, causing it to rebound in
the opposite direction at a speed of 18 m/s. What is the change in the ball’s
momentum?
A. –0.36 kg·m/s C.
–1.1 kg·m/s
B. –0.72 kg·m/s D.
–1.8 kg·m/s
83.
Two
pucks float and glide horizontally across a level air hockey table. The pucks ride on a cushion of air and
experience no friction. Consider these
two pucks to be a system. Which of the
following would cause a change in the total momentum of this system?
A. The upward force of the air rushing out of the holes in the hockey table.
B. The mutual gravitational force of the two pucks acting on one another.
C. The normal force that causes a puck to bounce off the walls at the edge of
the table.
D. The normal force that causes the pucks to bounce off one another when they
collide.
84.
An
astronaut with a mass of 70.0 kg is outside a space capsule when the tether
line breaks. To return to the capsule, the astronaut throws a 2.0 kg wrench
away from the capsule at a speed of 14 m/s. At what speed does the astronaut
move toward the capsule?
A. 5.0 m/s C. 3.5 m/s
B. 0.4 m/s D. 7.0 m/s
85.
A
bullet with a mass of 5.00 g is loaded into a gun. The loaded gun has a mass of
0.52 kg. The bullet is fired, causing the empty gun to recoil at a speed of 2.1
m/s. What is the speed of the bullet?
A. 48 m/s C. 21 m/s
B. 220 m/s D. 110 m/s
86.
Two
skaters, each with a mass of 50.0 kg, are stationary on a frictionless ice
pond. One skater throws a 0.200 kg ball at 5.00 m/s to the other skater, who
catches it. What will be the resulting speed of the skater that catches the
ball?
A. 0.0199 m/s C.
1.00 m/s
B. 0.0200 m/s D.
5.00 m/s
87.
A
diver with a mass of 80.0 kg jumps from a dock into a 130.0 kg boat at rest on
the west side of the dock. If the velocity of the diver in the air is 4.10 m/s
to the west, what is the final velocity of the diver after landing in the boat?
A. 2.52 m/s to the west C. 1.56 m/s to the west
B. 2.52 m/s to the east D. 1.56 m/s to the east
88.
A 1.5
´ 103 kg truck moving at 15 m/s
strikes a 7.5 ´ 102
kg automobile stopped at a traffic light. The vehicles hook bumpers and skid
together after the collision. What is the decrease in kinetic energy that
occurs during the collision?
A. 1.1 ´ 105 J C.
1.7 ´ 105 J
B. 1.2 ´ 104 J D.
5.6 ´ 104 J
89.
Which
of the following best describes the total kinetic energy of the system after a
two-body collision if the total momentum of the system remains constant?
A. stays the same or is increased C.
stays the same or is decreased
B. stays exactly the same D. temporarily increases
and then decreases
90.
An
object with a mass of 0.10 kg makes an elastic head-on collision with a
stationary object with a mass of 0.15 kg. The final velocity of the 0.10 kg
object after the collision is –0.045 m/s. What was the initial velocity of the
0.10 kg object?
A. 0.16 m/s C. 0.20 m/s
B. –1.06 m/s D. –0.20 m/s
91.
A
bowling ball with a mass of 7.0 kg strikes a pin that has a mass of 2.0 kg. The
pin flies forward with a velocity of 6.0 m/s, and the ball continues forward at
4.0 m/s. What was the original velocity of the ball?
A. 5.1 m/s C. 2.2 m/s
B. 5.7 m/s D. 3.3 m/s
92.
Which
of the following is the time it takes to complete a cycle of motion?
A. amplitude C. frequency
B. period D. revolution
93.
Which
of the following is the number of cycles or vibrations per unit of time?
A. amplitude C. frequency
B. period D. revolution
94.
A
periodic wave has a wavelength of 0.50 m and a speed of 20 m/s. What is the
wave frequency?
A. 0.02 Hz C. 40 Hz
B. 20 Hz D. 10 Hz
95.
A
musical tone sounded on a piano has a frequency of 410 Hz and a wavelength of
0.80 m. What is the speed of the sound wave?
A. 170 m/s C. 330 m/s
B. 240 m/s D. 590 m/s
96.
Bats
can detect small objects, such as insects, that are approximately the size of
one wavelength. If a bat emits a chirp at a frequency of 60.0 kHz and the speed
of sound waves in air is 330 m/s, what is the size of the smallest insect that
the bat can detect?
A. 1.5 mm C.
5.5 mm
B. 3.5 mm D.
7.5 mm
97.
Waves
propagate along a stretched string at a speed of 8.0 m/s. The end of the string
vibrates up and down once every 1.5 s. What is the wavelength of the waves
traveling along the string?
A. 3.0 m C. 6.0 m
B. 12 m D. 5.3 m
98.
Standing
waves are produced by periodic waves of
A. any amplitude and wavelength traveling in the same direction.
B. the same amplitude and wavelength traveling in the same direction.
C. any amplitude and wavelength traveling in opposite directions.
D. the same frequency, amplitude, and wavelength traveling in opposite
directions.
99.
Which
of the following wave lengths would produce standing waves on a string
approximately 3.5 m long?
A. 2.33 m C. 3.75 m
B. 2.85 m D. 4.55 m
100.
How
many nodes and antinodes are shown in the standing wave above?
A. two nodes and three antinodes C. one-third node and one antinode
B. one node and two antinodes D. three nodes and two antinodes
101.
A 3.0
m long stretched string is fixed at both ends. If standing waves with a
wavelength of two-thirds L are produced on this
string, how many nodes will be formed?
A. 0 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
102.
In
the diagram above, use the superposition principle to find the resultant wave
of waves W and Z.
A. a C. c
B. b D. d
103.
In
the diagram above, use the superposition principle to find the resultant wave
of waves Q and R.
A. a C. c
B. b D. d
104.
Sound
waves
A. are a part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
B. do not require a medium for transmission.
C. are longitudinal waves.
D. are transverse waves.
105.
Which
of the following is the region of a longitudinal wave in which the density and
pressure are less than normal?
A. rarefaction C. spherical
wave
B. compression D. Doppler
effect
106.
Which
statement about sound waves is correct?
A. They generally travel faster through solids than through gases.
B. They generally travel faster through gases than through solids.
C. They generally travel faster through gases than liquids.
D. They generally travel faster than light.
107.
For a
standing wave in an air column in a pipe that is open at both ends, there must
be at least
A. one node and one antinode. C. two antinodes and one node.
B. two nodes and one antinode. D.
two nodes and two antinodes.
108.
If
one end of a pipe is closed,
A. all harmonics are present. C. only odd harmonics are present.
B. no harmonics are present. D. only even harmonics are present.
109.
What
is the lowest frequency that will resonate in a 2.0 m length organ pipe closed
at one end? The speed of sound in air at this temperature is 340 m/s.
A. 42 Hz C. 170 Hz
B. 85 Hz D. 680 Hz
110.
If a guitar
string has a fundamental frequency of 500 Hz, what is the frequency of its
second harmonic?
A. 250 Hz C. 1000 Hz
B. 750 Hz D. 1500 Hz
111.
What
is the wavelength of microwaves of 3.0 ´ 109 Hz frequency?
A. 0.060 m C.
10 m
B. 0.10 m D. 110 nm
112.
What
is the frequency of infrared light of 1.0 ´ 10–4 wavelength?
A. 3.0 ´ 10–2 Hz C.
3.0 ´ 1012 Hz
B. 3.0 ´ 104 Hz D.
3.0 ´ 102 Hz
113.
Yellow-green
light has wavelength of 560 nm. What is its frequency?
A. 5.4 ´ 1016 Hz C.
5.4 ´ 1011 Hz
B. 1.9 ´ 10-15 Hz D. 5.4 ´ 1014 Hz
114.
In a
vacuum, electromagnetic radiation of short wavelengths
A. travels as fast as radiation of long wavelengths.
B. travels slower than radiation of long wavelengths.
C. travels faster than radiation of long wavelengths.
D. can travel both faster and slower than radiation of long wavelengths.
115.
In a
double-slit interference pattern the path length from one slit to the first
dark fringe of a double-slit interference pattern is longer than the path
length from the other slit to the fringe by
A. three-quarters of a wavelength. C. one-quarter of a wavelength.
B. one-half of a wavelength. D.
one full wavelength.
116.
In
Young’s double-slit experiment, a wave from one slit arrives at a point on a
screen one wavelength behind the wave from the other slit. What is observed at
that point?
A. dark fringe C. multicolored
fringe
B. bright fringe D. gray
fringe, neither dark nor bright
117.
The
distance between the two slits in a double-slit experiment is 0.04 mm. The
second-order bright fringe (m = 2) is measured on a screen at an angle
of 2.2° from the central maximum. What is the
wavelength of the light?
A. 1.5 μm C.
770 μm
B. 1.5 mm D.
770 nm
118.
The
distance between two slits in a double-slit experiment is 0.005 mm. What is the
angle of the third-order bright fringe (m = 3) produced with light of
550 nm?
A. 0.19° C.
12°
B. 6.3° D.
19°
119.
Monochromatic
light shines on the surface of a diffraction grating with 5.0
´ 103 lines/cm. The
first-order maximum is observed at a 20.0° angle. Find the wavelength.
A. 68 μm C.
680 nm
B. 480 nm D. 350 nm
120.
The
angle between the first-order maximum and the zeroth-order
maximum for monochromatic light of 2300 nm is 27°. Calculate the number of lines per centimeter on this grating.
A. 1600 lines/cm C. 2500
lines/cm
B. 2.0 ´ 103 lines/cm D.
4500 lines/cm
121.
What
happens when a rubber rod is rubbed with a piece of fur, giving it a negative
charge?
A. Protons are removed from the rod. C.
The fur is also negatively charged.
B. Electrons are added to the rod. D. The fur is left neutral.
122.
When
a glass rod is rubbed with silk and becomes positively charged,
A. electrons are removed from the rod. C.
protons are added to the silk.
B. protons are removed from the silk. D.
the silk remains neutral.
123.
Which
sentence best characterizes electric conductors?
A. They have low mass density.
B. They have high tensile strength
C. They have electric charges that move freely.
D. They are poor heat conductors.
124.
Which
sentence best characterizes electric insulators?
A. Charges on their surface do not move. C.
Electric charges move freely in them.
B. They have high tensile strength D. They are good heat conductors.
125.
If
two point charges are separated by 1.5 cm and have charge values of 2.0 mC and –4.0 mC, respectively, what is the value of the
mutual force between them? (kc =
8.99 ´ 109 N·m2/C2)
A. 320 N C. 0.048 N
B. 4.8 N D.
0.032 N
126.
Four
charges—A, B, C, and D— are at the corners of a square. Charges A and D, on
opposite corners, have equal charge, whereas both B and C have a charge of 1.0
C. If the force on B is zero, what is the charge on A?
A. –1.0 C C. –0.35 C
B. –0.50 C D. –0.71 C
127.
Two
charges are located on the positive x-axis of a coordinate system.
Charge q1 = 2.00 ´ 10–9C, and it is 0.02 m from the origin. Charge q2
= –3.00 ´ 10–9C,
and it is 0.04 m from the origin. What is the electric force exerted by these
two charges on a third charge, q3 = 5.00 ´ 10–9, located at the origin?
A. 2.2 ´ 10–4 N C.
3.1 ´ 10–4
N
B. 1.4 ´ 10–4
N D. 8.4 ´ 10–4
N
128.
Two
equal positive charges, both q = 2.0 ´ 10–6 C, interact with a third charge, Q = 4.0 ´ 10–6 C, as shown in the figure
above. What is the magnitude of the electric force on Q?
A. 0.23 N C. 0.46 N
B. 0.35 N D. 0.58 N
129.
A
proton, initially at rest, is accelerated through an electric potential
difference of 500 V. What is the
resulting speed of the proton?
A. 220 km/s C.
96 Gm/s
B. 310 km/s D.
zero
130.
The
current in an electron beam in a cathode-ray tube is 7.0 ´ 10–5 A. How much charge hits
the screen in 5.0 s?
A. 2.8 ´ 103 C C.
3.5 ´ 10–4 C
B. 1.4 ´ 10–5 C D.
71000 C
131.
A
wire carries a steady current of 0.1 A over a period
of 20 s. What total charge moves through the wire in this time interval?
A. 200 C C.
2 C
B. 20 C D. 0.005 C
132.
What
is the potential difference across a resistor of 5.0 W that carries a current of 5.0 A?
A. 125 V C. 4.0 V
B. 25 V D. 1.0 V
133.
A
flashlight bulb with a potential difference of 4.5 V across it has a resistance
of 8.0 W. How much current is in the bulb
filament?
A. 3.7 A C. 9.4 A
B. 1.8 A D. 0.56 A
134.
The
power ratings on light bulbs are measures of the
A. rate that they give off heat and light.
B. voltage they require.
C. density of the charge carriers.
D. amount of negative charge passing through them.
135.
If a
75 W light bulb operates at a voltage of 120 V, what is the current in the
bulb?
A. 0.63 A
B. 1.6 A
C. 9.0 ´ 103 A
D. 1.1 ´ 10–4 A
136.
If a
5.00 ´ 102 W heater has a current of
4.00 A, what is the potential difference across the
ends of the heating element?
A. 2.00 ´ 103 V C.
2.50 ´ 102 V
B. 125 V D. 8.00 ´ 10–3 V
137.
If a
325 W heater has a current of 6.0 A, what is the
resistance of the heating element?
A. 88 W C.
9.0 W
B. 54 W D.
11 W
138.
If a
lamp has a resistance of 120 W when it
operates at a power of 1.00 ´ 102
W, what is the potential difference across the lamp?
A. 110 V C. 130 V
B. 120 V D. 220 V
139.
An
electric toaster requires 1100 W at 110 V. What is the resistance of the
heating coil?
A.0.091 W C.
1.0 ´ 101 W
B. 9.0 W D.
11 W
140.
A
steam turbine at an electric power plant delivers 4500 kW of power to an
electrical generator that converts 95 percent of this mechanical energy into
electrical energy. What is the current delivered by the generator if it
delivers energy at 3600 V?
A. 660 A C.
1190 A
B. 1320 A D.
1250 A
141.
Three
resistors with values of 4.0 W, 6.0 W, and 8.0 W, respectively, are connected in series. What is their equivalent
resistance?
A. 18 W C.
0.54 W
B. 6 W D.
1.8 W
142.
Three
resistors connected in series carry currents labeled I1, I2,
and I3, respectively. Which of the following expresses the
total current, It, in the system
made up of the three resistors in series?
A. It = I1 + I2 + I3 C.
It = I1 = I2 = I3
B. It = (1I1 + 1/I2 + 1/I3) D.
It = (1I1 + 1/I2 + 1/I3)–1
143.
T hree resistors connected in series have voltages labeled DV1, DV2,
and DV3. Which of the following expresses the
total voltage taken over the three resistors together?
A. DVt = DV1 + DV2 + DV3 C. DVt = DV1 = DV2 = DV3
B. DVt = (1/DV1 + 1/DV2
+ 1/DV3) D. DVt = (1/DV1 + 1/DV2 + 1/DV3)–1
144.
Three
resistors with values of 4.0 W, 6.0 W, and 10.0 W are connected in parallel. What is their equivalent resistance?
A. 20.0 W C.
0.52 W
B. 6.7 W D.
1.9 W
145.
Three
resistors connected in parallel carry currents labeled I1, I2,
and I3. Which of the following expresses the total current It in the combined system?
A. It = I1 + I2 + I3 C.
It = I1 = I2 = I3
B. It = (1I1 + 1/I2 + 1/I3) D.
It = (1I1 + 1/I2 + 1/I3)–1
146.
Three
resistors connected in parallel have voltages labeled DV1, DV2, and DV3.
Which of the following expresses the total voltage across the three resistors?
A. DVt = DV1 + DV2 + DV3 C. DVt = DV1 = DV2
= DV3
B. DVt = (1/DV1 + 1/DV2 + 1/DV3) D. DVt = (1/DV1 + 1/DV2
+ 1/DV3)–1
147.
What
is the equivalent resistance for the resistors in the figure above?
A. 2.3 W C.
12 W
B. 5.2 W D.
22 W
148.
What
is the equivalent resistance for the resistors in the figure above?
A. 1.3 W C.
0.75 W
B. 2.3 W D.
0.44 W
149.
Three
resistors connected in parallel have individual values of 4.0 W, 6.0 W, and 10.0 W, as shown
above. If this combination is connected in series with a 12.0 V battery and a
2.0 W resistor, what is the current in the 10.0
W resistor?
A. 0.59 A C. 11A
B. 1.0 A D. 16A
150.
How
much current is in one of the 10 W resistors in the diagram shown above?
A. 0.8 A C. 0.6 A
B. 2 A D. 4 A
Physics
Practice Final Exam
Answer
Section
MULTIPLE
CHOICE